Public Administration Civil Services Exams Solved Paper

Public Administration asked in Civil Services Examination (Pre.) of 2008. These all questions will very helpful to you for the forthcoming government competitive exams.


1. Which one of the following is not a/an approach/method/principle for organization development (OD) ?
(A) Grid approach (B) Survey feedback method
(C) Process consultation (D) Peter principle

2. In the Managerial Grid approach to defining leadership styles by Robert Blake and Jane Mouton, which variable is used along with the concern for people ?
(A) Concern for external environment (B) Concern for flexibility
(C) Concern for production (D) Concern for managing change

3. Which of the following is not one of the four systems of leadership suggested by Rensis Likert ?
(A) Charismatic (B) Exploitive-authoritative
(C) Consultative (D) Participative-group

4. Consider the following statements about variable budgets—
1. Variable budgets are used most appropriately when operations are repetitive.
2. Variable budgets are used most appropriately when there is only a small number of different expenses.
3. Variable budgets are often quite expensive to prepare.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

5. Who is/are the author(s) of the well-known book : Paradoxes of Group Life on the subject of intragroup conflicts in an organization ?
(A) A. F. Stoner and E. Freeman
(B) K. Smith and D. Berg
(C) S. Ghoshal
(D) C. K. Prahlad


6. John Woodward is known for her contribution in which area ?
(A) Task technology approach to organizational design
(B) Environmental approach to organizational design
(C) Communication systems in an organization
(D) Feedback control in an organization

7. What did the Bhore Committee deal with ?
(A) Technical education in India
(B) Public health in India
(C) Development of airports in India
(D) Development of ports in India

8. Which of the following has/have been granted exemption from disclosure under the Right to Information Act, 2005 unless the competent authority is satisfied that larger public interest warrants the disclosure of the relevant information ?
1. Information in respect of intellectual property, the disclosure of which would harm the competitive position of a third party.
2. Information available to a person in his fiduciary relationship.
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

9. How can a State Information Commissioner be removed from office ?
(A) By an order of the State Chief Information Commissioner
(B) By the Supreme Court of India
(C) By an order of the Governor after the Supreme Court, on a reference made to it by the Governor, has on inquiry reported that the State Information Commissioner ought to be removed
(D) In a manner similar to the removal from his office of a Judge of a High Court

10. Which one among the following conducts the “Census of Central Government Employees” and publishes the Report thereof ?
(A) Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation, Government of India
(B) Directorate General of Employment and Training, Ministry of Labour, Government of India
(C) Planning Commission of India
(D) Registrar General of India, Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India

11. Consider the following statements—
1. The Central Staffing Scheme for the Central Government employees is operated by the Union Public Service Commission.
2. The Central Staffing Scheme pertains only to the officers from Group A Central Services only and it does not apply to officers from All India Services.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

12. Who among the following had tested Weber’s ideal type model empirically and found that the Weberian Model had internal contradictions ?
(A) Gouldner (B) Merton (C) Barnard (D) Simon

13. Which one of the following is the correct statement ?
The experiments of Mayo and Roethlisberger were predicated initially on the Taylorian hypothesis that workers—
(A) Are essentially lazy
(B) Are motivated only by more pay
(C) Respond like machines to changes in working conditions
(D) Obey orders of immediate superiors

14. Which one of the following streams of thought could not be labelled under ‘situational design theory’ ?
(A) Behavioural approach (B) Neo-classical, approach
(C) Contingency approach (D) Bureaucratic model

15. Who among the following termed communication as the foundation of cooperative group activity in an organization ?
(A) H. A. Simon (B) J. D. Millet
(C) Peter Drucker (D) Chester I. Barnard

16. Which of the following are the power bases of leadership in terms of formulation by French and Raven ?
1. Coercive power 2. Technical power
3. Referent power 4. Police power
5. Legitimate power
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 2, 4 and 5
(D) 1, 3 and 5

17. In ‘Management Grid Theory’ of Blake and Mouton when the ‘concern for people’ is the highest, what is the leadership pattern called ?
(A) ‘Impoverished’ (B) ‘People-centric’
(C) ‘Team Manager’ (D) ‘Country Club’

18. Which of the following are the components of Maslow’s esteem needs ?
1. Aggressiveness 2. Desire to attain fame
3. Independence 4. Social recognition

5. Self-confidence Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 2, 3, 4 and 5
(C) 1, 3 and 5 (D) 1, 2, 4 and 5

19. Consider the following statements about Motivation—
1. It refers to human behaviour directed towards organizational goals.
2. It activates the organization members to achieve the desired goals.
3. It is concerned with identification of inefficiency factors.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

20. Consider the following statements—
Ethics Reforms Act, 1989 passed by the U. S. Congress was an improvement over the Ethics in Government Act of 1978 in that—
1. It extended the provisions of the 1978 Act to the federal judiciary and legislature as well.
2. It created the Office of Personnel Management and Office of Government Ethics.
3. It led to the appointment of Special Prosecutor in the Department of Justice and a legal counsel in the Sentate.
4. It did none of the above except change the title of the Act.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 4 only
(D) 1 and 3 only

21. “Simon proposed a new concept of administration based on theories and methodology of logical positivism”. These views are assigned to whom ?
(A) N. Umapathy (B) Amilai Etzioni
(C) Deming (D) Chris Argyris

22. Consider the following statements—
The essential difference between closed and open models of organization is differing perception about—
1. Human nature.
2. Organizational environment.
3. Role and significance of organization in society.
4. Management’s role in organization.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(A) 1, 3 and 4
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 4

23. The New Public Management places maximum emphasis on which one of the following ?
(A) Customer driven government
(B) Entrepreneurial government
(C) Rationality in decision making
(D) Down-sizing of bureaucracy

24. The reinvention of government paradigm does not include which of the following ?
1. Risk taking ability
2. Ecological sensitivity
3. Customer orientation
4. Delegation of authority
5. Concern for the disadvantaged
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 3, 4 and 5
(C) 1, 4 and 5
(D) 2, 4 and 5

25. Weber’s charismatic authority has which of the following features ?
1. Positions are given to followers on the basis of their merit.
2. Legitimacy is derived from ‘charisma’.
3. Person giving order has sacred and outstanding characteristics.
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

26. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I (Concept)
(a) Functional foremanship (b) Constructive conflict (c) Scalar principle (d) Grapevine
List-II (Contributor)
1. L. Urwick 2. F. Taylor 3. E. Mayo 4. M. Weber 5. M. Follet
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 3 1 5
(B) 1 5 4 3
(C) 2 5 1 3
(D) 1 3 4 5

27. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I (Book)
(a) Human Organization
(b) Theory of Social and Economic Organization
(c) New Patterns of Management
(d) The Human Problems of an Industrial Civilization
List-II (Author)
1. Rensis Likert 2. Elton Mayo 3. Henry Fayol 4. Max Weber
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 4 1 2
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 3 1 4 2
(D) 2 4 1 3

28. According to classical theorists, how is coordination as a continuous process of harmonious ordering of various parts of an administrative organization characterized ?
1. It is the ultimate task of the head of the organization only.
2. It can be effectively achieved through hierarchisation of authority.
3. It can be facilitated through staff agencies.
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

29. Legitimacy of rule, according to Max Weber, is based on which of the following ?
1. Tradition 2. Charisma
3. Electoral verdict 4. Professional competence
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

30. Which one of the following is not a post behavioural tenet in the trinity of Post Modern Public Administration ?
(A) Critical Theory (B) Neo Taylorism
(C) Rational Theory (D) Public Choice Theory

31. Which of the following are the characteristics of New Public Management ?
1. Emphasis on marketization and entrepreneurship.
2. Separation between strategic policy making and implementation.
3. Accountability through a simple chain of command.
4. Separation of units within a public sector enterprise.
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1, 2 and 4 only
(B) 2, 3 and 4 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

32. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I
(a) Public Administration studies have to be comparative to claim the status of a science
(b) Development administration is goal and action oriented
(c) Bureaucratic structures are necessary but not sufficient
(d) Development is both process and purpose
List-II
1. Weidner
2. Hahn-Been Lee
3. R. Dahl
4. V. Ostrom
Codes :(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 2 4 1
(B) 4 1 3 2
(C) 3 1 4 2
(D) 4 2 3 1

33. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched ?
Thought/Concept Scholar
1. Hierarchical pyramid : Y. Dror would not so much flatten as a result of computers as spread into a bell shape
2. A change in : Vilfredo Pareto economic organization that makes one or more members of society better off without making anyone worse off
3. Metapolicy Policy for : John Pfiffner policy making procedures
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 2 only
(B) 3 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

34. Which one of the following is the correct statement ?
‘Comparative Public Administration’ differs from traditional comparative study of administrative phenomena in that it involves—
(A) Ecological, structural-functional, empirical and nomothetic approaches
(B) Non-ecological, prescriptive, ideographic approaches
(C) Adoption of legal-formal institutional approaches
(D) Adoption of philosophical and ethical moral approaches

35. Consider the following statements—
Woodrow Wilson laid the foundation for the study of Public Administration by his emphasis on—
1. A science of administration.
2. A more businesslike administration.
3. Efficiency, economy and effectiveness as lasting values of administration.
4. The need to study human behaviour attitudes and actions.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 1, 3 and 4

36. Consider the following statements—
According to Robert Dahl, the scientific study of Public Administration is not possible because—
1. It involves problems of normative values.
2. Administrative behaviour is not predictable.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

37. Consider the following statements—
Public-private distinction in public administration is currently losing much of its original rigidity due to—
1. Contemporary acceptance of neoliberal ideology.
2. Trend towards outsourcing in recent times.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

38. Consider the following statements—
In the course of Waldo-Simon debate on the theme of ‘Science’ of administration, Waldo questioned Simon’s ‘facts-values’ division, as—
1. An attempt to retain efficiency as core value of administration.
2. A way of purging administration of politics.
3. Making a mere logical division of politics and administration.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

39. Consider the following statements—
1. Functional departmentation ensures that core activities of the enterprise are defended by the top managers.
2. Departmentation by territory places more responsibility at lower levels.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

40. Consider the following statements in respect of a matrix organization—
1. Professional identification is not maintained.
2. Conflict in organization authority exists.
3. There is a possibility of disunity of command.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

41. The theory of cognitive dissonance proposed by Leon Festinger relates to any incompatibility between which of the following ?
(A) Behaviour and attitude of a person
(B) Skill-set and compensation of an employee
(C) The leadership styles of two managers
(D) Motivational needs of two employees

42. In the context of Frederick Herzberg’s motivation theory, which one of the following is not correctly matched ?
(A) Salary —Motivator
(B) Status —Hygiene factor
(C) Growth —Motivator
(D) Security —Hygiene factor

43. Which of the following are correctly matched ?
1. Situational leadership theory—Hersey-Blanchard
2. Path goal theory —Robert House
3. Leadership participation Model —The University of Michigan Studies
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

44. Consider the following statements—
1. There is no provision in the Constitution of India under which the President of India may entrust, with the consent of the Government of a State, to that Government, functions in relation to any matter to which the executive power of the Union extends.
2. Under the provisions of the Constitution of India, only legislature of a State can by law alter the name of that State.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

45. Which of the following functions have been laid down in the 12th Schedule of the Constitution of India for the municipalities ?
1. Urban poverty alleviation.
2. Planning for economic and social development.
3. Regulation for tanneries.
4. Urban forestry.
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 2, 3 and 4 only
(C) 1 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

46. Consider the following statements—
1. Under the Government of India Act, 1919 the Indian Legislature was made more representative and, for the first time, bicameral.
2. Before independence, while under all the previous Government of India Acts, the Government of India was unitary, the Government of India Act, 1935 prescribed a federation taking the Provinces and the Indian States as units.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

47. Which of the following statements is/are correct in respect of the Constitution of India ?
1. The Constitution received signature of the President of the Constituent Assembly on 26 November, 1949.
2. The provisions relating to citizenship were given immediate effect from 26 November, 1949.
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

48. Consider the following statements—
1. The Constitution (Seventythird Amendment) Act, 1992 has added 16 Articles and a new Schedule in the Constitution of India.
2. The Constitution (Seventyfourth Amendment) Act, 1992 has added 18 Articles but no new Schedule in the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

49. Consider the following statements—
All the Reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India,
1. Relating to accounts of the Union and accounts of States are submitted to the President of India.
2. Relating to accounts of a State are submitted to the Governor of the State.
3. Relating to accounts of States are submitted to the Union Minister of Finance. Which of the statements given above is correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 3 only
(D) None

50. Provisions of which of the following matters qualify a Bill to be deemed to be a Money Bill ?
1. The receipt of money on account of the public account of India.
2. The custody of the Contingency Fund of India.
3. Alteration of any tax
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

51. Who makes provisions with respect to the maintenance of accounts by the Panchayats and the auditing of such accounts ?
(A) Finance Commission of the concerned State
(B) Legislature of the State
(C) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(D) District Collector

52. Who is vested with powers to make regulations as to conditions of service of Members and staff of the Union Public Service Commission ?
(A) President of India
(B) Parliament
(C) Union Minister of Law
(D) Chairman, Union Public Service Commission

53. What age is prescribed for a person to qualify for appointment as a Judge of the Supreme Court of India ?
(A) Not below 30 years on the date of appointment
(B) Not below 35 years on the date of appointment
(C) Not below 40 years on the date of appointment
(D) It is determined in such manner as Parliament may, by law, provide

54. Which of the following Union Ministries / Office / Commission in India publishes the Economic Survey ?
(A) Ministry of Finance (B) Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
(C) Planning Commission (D) Cabinet Secretariat

55. During the presentation of the Union Budget as the Finance Minister of India, who among the following announced setting up of Expenditure Reforms Commission ?
(A) P. Chidambaram (B) Manmohan Singh
(C) Jaswant Singh (D) Yashwant Sinha

Directions—(Q. 56-60) Each of the next Five items consists of two statements, one labelled as the ‘Assertion (A)’ and the other as ‘Reason (R)’. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are individually true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true

56. Assertion (A) : The New Public Management is a mere extension of New Public Administration.
Reason (R) : The Second Minnowbrook Conference followed the First Minnowbrook Conference after twenty years.

57. Assertion (A) : ‘Economic Man’ is the product of traditional theory of motivation.
Reason (R) : Material rewards make all organization members work harder for more material benefits.

58. Assertion (A) : The systems approach is criticized on the ground that it lacks the property of direct application to practical situations.
Reason (R) : It is descriptive, probabilistic and multivariate.

59. Assertion (A) : Lateral communication generally follows the chain of command rather than the work flow.
Reason (R) : Lateral communication provides a direct channel for coordination and problem solving.

60. Assertion (A) : Functional departmentation facilitates efficiency in the utilization of people.
Reason (R) : Functional departmentation does not adhere to the principle of occupational specialization.

61. Which one of the following is not a variable identified by Fred E. Fiedler that helps determine which leadership style will be effective ?
(A) Environmental pressures and workplace demands (B) Leader-member relations
(C) Task structures (D) Leader’s position power

62. Which of the following form a part of the terms of reference of the newly constituted Commission on Centre State Relations by the Government of India ?
1. Panchayati Raj institutions.
2. Communal violence.
3. An integrated domestic market.
4. Central Law Enforcement Agency.
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1 and 4 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

63. Who among the following was the Chairman of the “National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution” constituted by the Government of India in the year 2000 ?
(A) A. M. Ahmadi (B) A. S. Anand
(C) M. N. Venkatachalaiah (D) J. S. Verma

64. Which of the following in respect of the enlargement of Fundamental Rights were recommended by the “National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution” constituted by the Government of India in the year 2000 ?
1. Every person has a right to respect for his private and family life.
2. Every person has a right to leave the territory of India and every citizen shall have the right to return to India.
3. Every person who has been illegally deprived of his right to life or liberty shall have an enforceable right to compensation.
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

65. The States’ Debt Consolidation and Relief Facility 2005-2010 was introduced by the Central Government on whose recommendations ?
(A) 11th Finance Commission
(B) 12th Finance Commission
(C) National Development Council
(D) Planning Commission

66. Which of the following issues will be dealt with by the 13th Finance Commission as per the terms of reference ?
1. Measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the resources of the Panchayats and Municipalities in the State.
2. Methods needed to augment the financial resources of the State Universities by funding from the University Grants Commission.
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

67. Recommendations of the 13th Finance Commission will cover a period of five years commencing from which date ?
(A) 1.4.2008 (B) 1.4.2009
(C) 1.4.2010 (D) 1.4.2011

68. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I (Commission/Post of the Union of India)
(a) Finance Commission
(b) Union Public Service Commission
(c) Election Commission
(d) Comptroller and Auditor-
General of India
List-II (Article of the Constitution of India)
1. 148
2. 280
3. 315
4. 324
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 1 2 3
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 2 1 4 3

69. Under which Union Ministry does the National River Conservation Directorate function ?
(A) The Ministry of Agriculture
(B) The Ministry of Water Resources
(C) The Ministry of Rural Development
(D) The Ministry of Environment and Forests

70. Consider the following statements about the Scheme for Strengthening of Revenue Administration and Updating of Land Records (SRA and ULR)—
1. The scheme is being implemented by the State Governments.
2. The scheme is financed by the Centre and States on 50 : 50 funds sharing basis.
3. Union Territories are being provided full central assistance. Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

71. Consider the following statements—
1. Good objective standards enable managers to avoid time-consuming contacts with his subordinates.
2. Inadequate or unclear authority delegation requires wide span of management in an organization.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

72. Who among the following further developed the Politics-Administration dichotomy—a fairly constant line of thought at the initial stages of the evolution of Public Administration ?
(A) H. Fayol (B) L. Gulick
(C) L. Urwick (D) F. Goodrow

73. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I
(a) Talcott Parsons (b) Frederick Herzberg
(c) Anthony Downs (d) M. P. Follett
List-II
1. Creative Experience
2. Inside Bureaucracy
3. The Structure of Social Action
4. Work and the Nature of Man
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 4 3 1
(B) 3 1 2 4
(C) 2 1 3 4
(D) 3 4 2 1

74. The Second Minnowbrook Conference (1988) discussed majorly about which one of the following ?
(A) Nomological deductivism (B) Professionalisation of public administration
(C) Debureaucratisation of administration (D) All inclusiveness of the term ‘Public’

75. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched ?
1. The Profession of Government—B. Chapman
2. Development Administration—La Palambora
3. Bureaucracy and Political Development—P. Appleby
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 only
(D) 3 only

76. Development is the process of increasing autonomy of social systems, made possible by rising level of diffraction.
Who among the following gave the above definition ?
(A) Edward Weidner (B) Ferrel Heady
(C) Fred W. Riggs (D) Montgomery and W. Siffin

77. The World Bank’s view did not espouse which one of the following ?
(A) An increased role of NGOs in governance of developing countries
(B) A more meaningful role by public servants in development
(C) Higher weightage to market forces of privatization
(D) Induction of sophisticated technology even without an adequate infrastructure

78. Consider the following statements in respect of the Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF)—
1. RIDF-I was launched in the year 2000-2001.
2. Presently, only State Governments are eligible to borrow out of the RIDF on project basis.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

79. The ‘Line and Staff’ form of organization first originated in which one of the following ?
(A) Educational Administration
(B) Municipal Administration
(C) Military Administration
(D) Public Administration

80. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I
(a) Frederick Taylor (b) Chester I. Barnard
(c) Chris Argyris and E. W. Bakke (d) Kurt Lewin
List-II
1. Field Force Model 2. Fusion Process Theory
3. Zone of indifference 4. Pig iron experiment
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 1 2 3
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 2 1 4 3

81. Taylor’s scientific management covers which of the following ?
1. Differential piecework plan.
2. Separation of planning and execution.
3. Time study.
4. Assuming worker as machine.
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1, 3 and 4 only
(B) 1, 2 and 4 only
(C) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(D) 2 and 3 only

82. Which one of the following is not a part of activities of an industrial undertaking as detailed by Fayol ?
(A) Relating to production and adaptation
(B) Relating to buying and selling
(C) Relating to liaison with the governments
(D) Relating to raising and utilizing the capital

83. Consider the following statements—
1. Authority relationship does not play any role in distinguishing line and staff functionaries.
2. Decentralization in an organization prevents comparison of performance of different organizational units to be made correctly.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

84. Which one of the following is not an advantage of departmentation by product in an organization ?
(A) Effective use of specialized facilities
(B) Effective use of specialized knowledge
(C) Unambiguous responsibility assignment
(D) Effective top-management control

85. What is the correct chronological sequence of the following constituent steps in organizing process of a public service unit ?
1. Grouping various activities after factoring in available human and material resources.
2. Delegating to each group head the necessary authority.
3. Identifying and classifying the various activities.
4. Tying the group together after factoring in authority relationships.
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 2, 4, 3 and 1
(B) 3, 1, 2 and 4
(C) 2, 1, 3 and 4
(D) 3, 4, 2 and 1

86. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I (Subject)
(a) Nonprogrammed decisions (b) Programmed decisions
(c) Emphasis on data storage (d) Emphasis on data manipulation
List-II (Related to)
1. Lower-level managers 2. Upper-level managers
3. Decision support system 4. Management Information System
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 1 3 4
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 1 2 4 3
(D) 2 1 4 3

87. Preference theory or utility theory is employed for which one of the following functions in an organization ?
(A) Job design (B) Work measurement
(C) Decision under uncertainty (D) Training program for new recruits

88. Consider the following statements in context of the civil service in the U. K.—
The English Committee (technically a part of the House of Commons Expenditure Committee) stressed in particular the need for—
1. A complete overhaul of administrative training.
2. More professionalism.
3. Less control over Whitehall by ministers and by Parliament. Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

89. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched ?
Feature Type of Budget
1. Allows no proper : Incremental budget
incentive for managers to
develop innovative ideas

2. Increases staff motivation : Zero-based budget

3. The R and D department : Zero-based budget
is threatened whereas
production department
benefits

4. The impact of change : Incremental budget
can be seen quickly

Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 2, 3 and 4 only
(C) 1 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

90. Which one of the following enabled the French Civil Service to emerge as a national institution ?
(A) French Revolution of 1789
(B) Introduction of merit principle of recruitment in 1847
(C) The Civil Service Act of 1946
(D) Introduction of General Grid System in 1948

91. “We are no longer confronted with several Administrative Sciences, but with one which can be applied equally well to public and private affairs”.
These views are assigned to whom ?
(A) Frederick Taylor
(B) L. Urwick
(C) Henri Fayol
(D) Frank Goodnow

92. In every organization the need for coordination rests upon which of the following factors ?
1. The need to avoid over-lapping and confusion in the organization.
2. The need to prevent lopsided concentration on one aspect of work to the exclusion of other aspects.
3. The need firstly to avoid conflict and secondly to resolve the conflicts whenever these may arise.
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

93. Participative style of leadership became popular during and after the era of which one of the following ?
(A) Systems theory (B) Behavioural theory
(C) Human Relations theory (D) Scientific Management theory

94. What is the threefold classification of authority as given by A. Etzioni ?
(A) Programme, Organizational and Normative
(B) Budgetary, Personnel and Utilitarian
(C) Coercive, Normative and Utilitarian
(D) Coercive, Normative and Organizational

95. Who among the following are authors of the well-known work—Administrative Behaviour : A Study of Decision-Making Processes in Administrative Organization ?
(A) Kenneth Thompson and Chester I. Barnard
(B) H. A. Simon and Chester I. Barnard
(C) F. Herzberg and A. Maslow
(D) A. Maslow and Chester I.Barnard

96. The Department of Land Resources is a part of which one of the Union Ministries ?
(A) Ministry of Housing and Urban Poverty Alleviation
(B) Ministry of Rural Development
(C) Ministry of Earth Sciences
(D) Ministry of Environment and Forests

97. What is/are the chief barrier(s) to interpersonal communication ?
1. Cultural
2. Perceptual
3. Ideological
4. Technological
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 2, 3 and 4

98. Why has the idea of organizational leadership been largely avoided in mainstream organization theory in social-psychological tradition ?
1. The idea goes against the open model.
2. It is against the closed model.
3. It ascribes special characteristics to some members in an organization.
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 2 and 3
(B) 1 only
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 2 only

99. In the U. K. the Citizen and the Administration : Redress of Grievances was published by which Report ?
(A) Whyatt Report (B) Atkinson Report
(C) William Report (D) Northcote-Trevelyan Report

100. Effective public participation in development projects majorly needs which of the following ?
1. Occasional consultation
2. Active association with the whole project cycle
3. Administrative initiative more than people’s initiative
4. Gender sensitivity
5. Poverty sensitivity
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 4 and 5
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 4 and 5



Answers :-
1. (D) 2. (C) 3. (A) 4. (D) 5. (A) 6. (A) 7. (B) 8. (C) 9. (C) 10. (B)
11. (D) 12. (A) 13. (C) 14. (D) 15. (D) 16. (D) 17. (D) 18. (B) 19. (A) 20. (D)
21. (A) 22. (B) 23. (B) 24. (D) 25. (B) 26. (C) 27. (A) 28. (B) 29. (A) 30. (C)
31. (A)32. (C) 33. (A) 34. (A) 35. (C) 36. (C) 37. (C) 38. (A) 39. (C) 40. (C)
41. (A) 42. (A) 43. (A) 44. (D) 45. (D) 46. (C) 47. (C) 48. (A) 49. (B) 50. (D)
51. (B) 52. (A) 53. (D) 54. (A) 55. (B) 56. (D) 57. (C) 58. (A) 59. (D) 60. (C)
61. (A) 62. (D) 63. (C) 64. (D) 65. (B) 66. (A) 67. (C) 68. (B) 69. (D) 70. (D)
71. (A)72. (D) 73. (D) 74. (D) 75. (C) 76. (C) 77. (D) 78. (B) 79. (C) 80. (C)
81. (C) 82. (C) 83. (D) 84. (B) 85. (B) 86. (D) 87. (C) 88. (D) 89. (A) 90. (C)
1. (C) 92. (D) 93. (C) 94. (C) 95. (B) 96. (B) 97. (C) 98. (C) 99. (A) 100. (B)